A women had lot of gold which was more than the nisaab but she distributed the gold between her four children equally because of which each child got less than the zakaat nisaab and the mother was left with very little gold also less than the nisaab, but because the children were not matured when she was dividing her gold so she did not physically give the children the gold but had just written their names on their share and gave it to them when they reached marriageable age.
The question is, did the children become the owners of the gold just by the mother dividing on her own, and if the children do not become the owners just by the mother dividing then does the mother have to give zakaat for all the years she was holding the gold with her before physically giving the children?